Recent Posts
My conclusion after extensive study.
v+5snY
No.320083
The real aryan homeland is Brahmavarta/Kuru region not steppes.
Supported by:
Textual evidence(battle of 10 kings and ecolinguistics)
Archaeology(site of saraswati, rakhigarhi the largest ivc site and bhirrana the oldest)
Highest 'steppe'(which spread to rest of india and as far as europe)
My understanding of what likely happened:
We had aryans in the brahmavarta region and iranics/dahae/dasa to the west of it inhabiting punjab region. To the east, were the other tribes. Aryan culture expanded into punjab to their west assimilating iranics which is why it is a more J haplogroup and iranN dominated region. Some dahae tribes were expelled and they migrated to iran. Some reached as far as europe where they mated with EHG females to form yamnaya who would rampage europe and spread aryan culture. In rest of india (east and south) aryan culture expanded with spread of Brahminism. AASI is just component of indian ancestry that never left unlike the aryan one which is why it never registers as 'steppe' or smthing else.
gsRFCl
No.320093
>>320083(OP)
OIT is giga retarded
How did aryans spread all the way to europe but not south india? And why would they leave in the first place, considering how lush and fertile the indo gangetic plains were?
All of this makes sense with steppe theory
79IHth
No.320095
>>320093
the pussy is always more fertile on the other side
kUji7L
No.320096
>>320083(OP)
Thumbnail kyo post kiya goberjeet?
VZ4paS
No.320118
>>320083(OP)
Is se acha koi kaam dhande ki study kar leta.
v+5snY
No.320141
>>320093
Such childish arguments you pose.
>How did aryans spread all the way to europe but not south india?
It actually makes even more sense. Language dispersals have always been asymmetrical with greater bias towards one side because it is very unlikely to have symmetrical conditions. You observe this with spread of Arabization (dispersed westwards), turkic languages(dispersed westwards), russian (dispersed eastwards) bantu languages(dispersed southwards). Symmetrical spread of IE acc to steppe theory is an anomaly.
>And why would they leave in the first place, considering how lush and fertile the indo gangetic plains were?
Please get an iq test. You are in 90 to 110 range. Kek. Humans left africa, humans migrated to siberia and bering strait, anatolian farmers migrated to europe. So many examples.
AUy12O
No.320149
>>320118
Chup Bihari
gsRFCl
No.320164
>>320141
>You observe this with spread of Arabization (dispersed westwards), turkic languages(dispersed westwards), russian (dispersed eastwards) bantu languages(dispersed southwards)
All of this is because of geography or because the other side had powerful empires who couldnt be defeated. This doesnt apply here. If the aryans were strong enough to conquer till europe, they must have conquered dravida as well. Why didnt they?
>Please get an iq test. You are in 90 to 110 range.
>saying this as an oit shill
kek
>Humans left africa, humans migrated to siberia and bering strait, anatolian farmers migrated to europe.
They were all nomadic tribes at the time. oit posits that ivc people, who were sedentary agriculturalists, migrated outwards. That doesnt make sense
v+5snY
No.320185
>>320164
Still explain why only AIT has symmetrical spread? You are the one making anomalous claim.
>they must have conquered dravida as well.
They did aryanize maharashtra, konkan, sri lanka, maldives. As to why they didnt conquer rest of south, even AIT doesnt explain that. Could have something to do with early emergence of powerful civilization in south and advanced ironworking. Just a guess.
>oit posits that ivc people, who were sedentary agriculturalists, migrated outwards.
No oit talks about vedic tribes who were still pastoralists followed by later waves from ivc. And farmers too migrate. Anatolian farmers migrated to and populated europe. Bantus were also farmers.
